Why can the will of man, after the fall, do only mortal sin?

		

		

		

		

		

	

How is the fact of the will’s being bound different from the notion of determinism?

		

		

		

		

		

	

Forde says “the self seeks its own self in all things, even in its piety”. Why is that so bad?

	

Why does Luther make the distinction, in thesis 14, between active capacity and passive capacity? And how does this apply to the human will?

		

		

		

		

	

Forde argues that man did not have an “active capacity” toward good even before the fall. Is this accurate? If so, what does this say about the whole “free will” argument of the theologian of glory? 

		

		

		

		

		

	

In what then did man’s original righteousness consist, if not in man freely and on his own producing good works?

		

		

		

		

	

How does this jibe with the account of the fall in Genesis 3?

		

		

		

		

	

According to Forde, of what does the fall consist?

		

		

		

	

Pr. David A. Kind

	

January 29, 2003